Chemistry MCQ for Exam

1 Mole fraction of glycerine C₃H₅(OH)₃ in solution containing 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is

(a) 0.46

(b) 0.40

(d) 0.36

2 Out of molality (m), molarity (M), formality (F) and mole fraction (x), those which are independent of temperature are

(a) M, m

(b) F, x

(d) M, x

3 Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

(a) ΔHmixing = 0

(b) ΔVmixing = 0

(d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture

4 Osmotic pressure of a solution is 0.0821 atm at a temperature of 300 K. The concentration in moles/litre will be

(a) 0.33

(b) 0.666

(d) 3

5 Which has the lowest boiling point at 1 atm pressure?

(a) 0.1 M KCl

(b) 0.1 M Urea

(d) 0.1 M A1Cl₃

6 The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The mixture shows

(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law.

(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.

(d) that the solution is unsaturated.

7 People add sodium chloride to water while boiling eggs. This is to

(a) decrease the boiling point.

(b) increase the boiling point.

(d) make eggs tasty.

8 The van’t Hoff factor (i) accounts for

(a) degree of solubilisation of solute.

(b) the extent of dissociation of solute.

(d) the degree of decomposition of solution.

9 The molal elevation constant depends upon

(a) nature of solute.

(b) nature of the solvent.

(d) enthalpy change.

10 Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

(a) ΔHmixing = 0

(b) ΔVmixing = 0

(d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture

11 Vapour pressure of a pure liquid X is 2 atm at 300 K. It is lowered to 1 atm on dissolving 1 g of Y in 20 g of liquid X. If molar mass of X is 200, what is the molar mass of Y?

(a) 20

(b) 50

(d) 200

12 Most of the processes in our body occur in:

(a) solid solution

(b) liquid solution

(d) colloidal solution

13 The term homogenous mixtures signifies that:

(a) its composition is uniform throughout the mixture.

(b) its properties are uniform throughout the mixture.

(d) neither composition nor properties are uniform

14 Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?

(a) Mole fraction

(b) Parts per million

(d) Molality

15 Which of the following mixture is(are) called solution?

(i) water + ammonia (ii) water + acetone

(iii) acetone + alcohol (iv) hexane + water

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)

16 A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in

(a) hypotonic solution

(b) hypertonic solution

(d) pure water

17 The relative lowering in vapour pressure is proportional to the ratio of number of:

(a) solute molecules to solvent molecules

(b) solvent molecules to solute molecules

(d) solvent molecules to the total number of molecules in solution

18 When a solute is present in trace quantities the following expression is used

(a) Gram per million

(b) Milligram percent

(d) Parts per million

19 The law which indicates the relationship between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure is

(a) Raoult’s law

(b) Henry’s law

(d) Van’t Hoff law

20 Molarity of liquid HCl will be, if density of solution is 1.17 gm/cc

(a) 36.5

(b) 32.05

(d) 42.10

21 1 M, 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another 0.5 M, 3 litre NaOH solution. Then find out the molarity of resultant solution

(a) 0.80 M

(b) 1.0 M

(d) 0.50 M

22 Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved in the process is

(a) lowering in vapour pressure of snow

(b) depression in freezing point of snow

(d) increase in freezing point of snow

23 Which of the following solutions shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?

(a) Acetone + Aniline

(b) Acetone + Ethanol

(d) Chloroform + Benzene

24 The system that forms maximum boiling azetrope is

(a) Acetone-chloroform

(b) ethanol-acetone

(d) carbon disulphide-acetone

25 A solution containing 10.2 g glycerine per litre is isotonic with a 2% solution of glucose. What is the molecular mass of glycerine?

(a) 91.8 g

(b) 1198 g

(d) 890.3 g

26 What weight of glycerol should be added to 600 g of water in order to lower its freezing point by 10°C ?

(a) 496 g

(b) 297 g

(d) 426 g

27 The osmotic pressure of a solution can be increased by

(a) increasing the volume

(b) increasing the number of solute molecules

(d) removing semipermeable membrane

28 An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is

(a) 14

(b) 3.2

(d) 2

29 H₂S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If solubility of H₂S in water at STP is 0.195 m. what is the value of KH?

(a) 0.0263 bar

(b) 69.16 bar

(d) 282 bar

1 If limiting molar conductivity of Ca²⁺ and Cl^– are 119.0 and 76.3 S cm² mol^-1, then the value of limiting molar conductivity of CaCl2 will be:

(a) 195.3 S cm² mol^-1

(b) 271.6 S cm² mol^-1

(d) 314.3 S cm² mol^-1

ANS: B

2 The emf of the cell:

Ni | Ni²⁺ (1.0 M) || Au³⁺(1.0 M) | Au (E° = -0.25 V for Ni²⁺| Ni; E° = 1.5 V for Au³⁺| Au) is

(a) 1.25 V

(b) -1.25 V

(d) 2.0 V

ANS: C

3 The ratio of distance between electrodes and area of cross section is referred to as:

(a) Faraday’s constant

(b) Cell Constant

(d) Specific resistance

ANS: B

4 The conductance of electrolyte, when distance between electrodes is 1 cm and area of cross section is 1 cm² , is referred to as:

(a) Molar conductance

(b) Equivalent conductance

(d) Specific Resistance

ANS: C

5 The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is formed to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be :

(a) 1.0 × 10¹⁰

(b) 2.0 × 10¹¹

(d) 1.0 × 10²

[Given F = 96500 (mol^-1); R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1]

ANS: A

6 An increase in molar conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:

(a) increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions.

(b) Increase in number of ions

(d) 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution

ANS: C

7 An increase in molar conductance of a weak electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:

(a) increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions.

(b) Increase in number of ions

(d) 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution

ANS: A

8 The law that states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum of the individual contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte is known as:

(a) Faraday’s Law

(b) Kohlrausch’s law

(d) Dalton’s law

ANS: B

9 A cathode and an anode are the most common components of an electrochemical cell. Which of the following claims about the cathode is correct?

(a) Oxidation occurs at the cathode

(b) Electrons move into the cathode

(d) Is usually made up of insulating material

ANS: B

10 Which of the following claims about electrochemical cells is true?

(a) Cell potential is an extensive property

(b) Cell potential is an intensive property

(d) Gibbs free energy is undefined for an electrochemical cell

ANS: B

11 Which of the following does not belong in the category of electrochemical cells?

(a) Voltaic cell

(b) Photovoltaic cell

(d) Fuel Cell

ANS B

12 The process of transmitting electric current through an electrolyte’s solution to decompose it is known as __________

(a) Electrolyte

(b) Electrode

(d) Electrochemical cell

ANS: C

13 Which of the following statements about a lead storage cell (or a lead-acid battery) is false?

(a) It is a primary cell

(b) The cathode is made up of lead(IV) oxide

(d) The electrolyte used is an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid

ANS: A

14 The conductivity of electrolytic conductors is due to __________

(a) Flow of free mobile electrons

(b) Movement of ions

(d) Cannot be considered

ANS: B

15 Effect of dilution on conductivity:

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) none of the above

ANS: A

16 Which of the following shows electrical conductance:

(a) sodium

(b) diamond

(d) potassium

ANS: C

17 In a fuel cell, which of the following can be utilized as a fuel?

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Argon

(d) Helium

ANS: C

18 Which of the following is given to a fuel cell’s cathode?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Nitrogen

(d) Chlorine

ANS: C

19 The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO₄^–to MnO₂ is

(a) 1 F

(b) 3 F

(d) 6 F

ANS: B

20 Ammonium nitrate is used in salt bridge because:

(a) it forms a jelly like material with agar-agar.

(b) it is a weak electrolyte.

(d) the transport number of NH₄⁺ and NO₃^– ions are almost equal.

ANS: D

21 The reaction, 3ClO^–(aq) → ClO₃ (aq) + 2Cl^– (aq) is an example of

(a) Oxidation reaction

(b) Reduction reaction

(d) Decomposition reaction

ANS: C

22 Which of the following assertions about the main cell is correct?

a) An example of a primary cell is a mercury cell

b) An example of a primary cell is a nickel-cadmium storage cell

c) The electrode reactions can be reversed

d) It can be recharged

ANS A

23 Standard solution of KNO₃ is used to make a salt bridge because:

(a) Velocity of K⁺ is greater than that of NO⁻₃.

(b) Velocity of NO⁻₃ is greater than that of K⁺.

(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water.

ANS: C

24 Galvanised iron sheets are coated with:

(a) Carbon

(b) Copper

(d) tin

ANS: C

25 How many coulombs are required for the oxidation of 1 mole of H₂O to O₂?

(a) 1.93 × 10⁵ C

(b) 9.65 × 10⁴ C

(d) 4.825 × 10⁵ C

ANS: A

26 Rust is a mixture of:

(a) FeO and Fe (OH)₃

(b) FeO and Fe (OH)₂

(d) Fe₃O₄ and Fe (OH)₃

ANS: C

27 The standard reduction potentials of Cu²⁺/Cu and Cu²⁺/Cu⁺ are 0.337V and 0.153 V respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu⁺/Cu half cell is:

(a) 0.184 V

(b) 0.827 V

(d) 0.490 V

ANS: C

28 In a dry cell, which of the following is the electrolyte?

a) Potassium hydroxide

b) Sulphuric acid

c) Ammonium chloride

d) Manganese dioxide

ANS: C

29 The volume of H₂ gas at NTP obtained by passing 4 amperes through acidified H₂O for 30 minutes is:

(a) 0.0836 L

(b) 0.0432 L

(d) 0.836 L

ANS: A

1. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, k = Ae^−Ea/RT. Activation energy (Ea ) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

(a) k vs T (b) k vs 1/ logT (c) log k vs 1/ T (d) log k vs 1/ log T

Ans. C

2. Which of the following will affect the rate at which a candle burns?

a)Shape of the candle.

b) Length of the wick.

c) The temperature of air.

d)Air pressure.

Ans. C

3 For a first order reaction with half-life of 150 s, the time taken for the concentration of the reactant to fall from M/10 to M/100 will be approximately

(a) 1500 s (b) 498 s (c) 900 s (d) 598 s

Ans. B

4 A catalyst

(1) increases the average kinetic energy of reacting molecules.

(2) increases the activation energy.

(3) alters the reaction mechanism.

(4) increases the frequency of collisions of reacting species.

Ans. C

5 For a hypothetical reaction A+ B → C+ D , the rate = k[A]^1/2[B]^3/2. On doubling the concentration of A and B the rate will be

(a) 4 times. (b) 2 times. (c) 3 times. (d) 6 times

Ans. A

6 For a zero order reaction, the plot of concentration vs time is linear with

(a) positive slope and zero intercept.

(b) negative slope and zero intercept.

(d) negative slope and non-zero intercept

Ans. D

7 The rate of the reaction 2NO + Cl₂ → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]² [Cl₂ ] the value of rate constant can be increased by

(a) increasing the concentration of NO.

(b) increasing the concentration of the Cl₂ .

(d) doing all of these.

Ans. C

8 The rate of the reaction 2N₂O₅ → 4NO₂ + O₂ can be written in three ways:

− d [N₂O₅]/dt = k [N₂O₅]; d [NO₂]/dt= k’ [N₂O₅]; d[ O₂]/dt = k’’ [N₂O₅]

The relationships between k and k′ and between k and k′′ are

(a) k′ = k; k′′ = k (b) k′ = 2k; k′′= k (c) k′ = 2k; k′′ = k/2 (d) k′ = 2k; k′′ = 2k

Ans. C

9 For the following first order reaction A → Products, which one of the following is correct plot of log[A] versus time?

a) 1 b)2 c) 3 d)4

Ans. B

10 A reaction of first-order completed 90% in 90 min, hence, it is completed 50% in approximately

(a) 50 min. (b) 54 min. (c) 27 min. (d) 623 min.

Ans. C

11 Consider a gaseous reaction, the rate of which is given by k[A][B], the volume of the reaction vessel containing these gases is suddenly reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume. The rate of reaction relative to the original rate would be

(a) 16/1 (b) 1/16 (c) 8/1 (d) 1/8

Ans. A

12 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 min, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately

(a) 40 min (b) 50 min (c) 45 min (d) 60 min (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

Ans. C

13 In a reaction 2A → Products; the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol L^–1 to 0.4 mol L^–1 in 10 min. The rate of the reaction during this interval is

(a) 0.05 M min^–1 (b) 0.005 M min^–1 (c) 0.5 M min^–1 (d) 5 M min^–1

Ans. B

14 If concentration is measured in mol L⁻¹ and time in minutes, the unit for the rate constant of n^th order reaction is

(a) molⁿ⁻² L^{− (n-2)} min⁻¹ (b) mol^1-n L^n-1 min⁻¹ (c) molⁿ⁻¹ L^1-n min⁻¹ (d) min⁻¹

Ans. B

15 The reaction of high molecularity are rare because
(a) Many body collisions have a low probability.
(b) Many body collisions are not favoured energetically.
(c) Activation energy of many body collisions is very large
(d) Very high concentration is required for such reactions.

Ans. A

16. The half-life of a substance in a certain enzyme-catalyzed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L⁻¹ to 0.04 mg L⁻¹

(a) 276 s (b) 414 s (c) 552 s (d) 690 s

Ans. D

17 The decomposition of phosphine (PH₃ ) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is because the

(a) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage.

(b) rate is independent of the surface coverage.

(d) rate is proportional to the surface coverage.

Ans. D

18 Half life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be completed in 100 min?

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 99.9% (d) 75%

Ans. C

19 Which graph represents first-order reaction out of I, II and III?

(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I and III

Ans. A

20 An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the diagram.

a) a b) b c) c d) d

Ans. C

21 The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as

H₂ (g) + 2ICl(g)→HCl(g)+I₂ (g)

This reaction is of first order with respect to H₂(g) and ICl(g), the following mechanisms were proposed:

Mechanism A: H₂ (g)+2ICl (g) →HCl(g)+I₂ (g)

Mechanism B: H₂(g )+ ICl (g ) → HCl(g)+HI(g); Slow

HI (g) + ICl (g) → HCl(g)+ I₂(g); Fast

Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?

(a) A only (b) B only (c) A and B both (d) Neither A nor B

Ans. B

22 For the reaction A + →B Products, it is observed that

(I) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and (II) on doubling the initial concentration of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction

The rate of this reaction is given by

(a) rate = k [A][B] (b) rate = k [A]² [B]

Ans. C

23 Half-lives of first order and zero order reaction are same. Ratio of rates at the start of reaction is

(a) 0.693 (b) 1/0.693 (c) 2 × 0.693 (d) 2/0.693

Ans. C

24 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 → 2XY is given below:

(I) X2 → X + X (fast)

(II) X +Y2→ XY + Y (slow)

(III) X + Y → XY (fast)

The overall order of the reaction will be

(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1.5 (d) 1

Ans. C

25 The potential Energy diagram for a reaction , R → P is shown below

Enthalpy change of the reaction corresponds to —-

(a) a (b) c (c) a + b (d) b

Ans. B

26 In a first order reaction the a/ a− x was found to be 8 after 10 min. The rate constant is

a) (2 .303 3 log 2 ) /10 b) (2 .303 2 log 3 ) /10

c) 10 × 2.303 × 2 log 3 d) 10 × 2.303 × 3 log 2

Ans. A

27 For a reaction taking place in three steps,the overall rate constant is k = k1x k2/k3. If Ea₁, Ea₂ and Ea₃ are 40,50 and 60 kJ/mol the overall Ea is

(a) 30 kJ/mol (b) 40 kJ/mol (c) 60 kJ/mol (d) 50 kJ/mol

Ans. A

28 For the reaction, N₂+ 3 H₂ → 2NH₃, if d [NH₃]/ dt= 4× 10⁻⁴ mol/ L/ s , the value of −d [H₂]/dt would be

(a) 1 × 10^{− 4} mol/L/s (b) 3 × 10^{− 4} mol/L/s

Ans. D

29 Consider the Fig. and mark the correct option.

(а) Activation energy of forward reaction is E₁ + E₂ and product is less stable than reactant.
(b) Activation energy of forward reaction is E₁ + E₂ and product is more stable than reactant.

(c) Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is E₁ + E₂ and reactant is more stable than product.
(d) Activation energy of backward reaction is E₁ and product is more stable than reactant.

Ans. A

30 Which of the following statements are applicable to a balanced chemical equation of an elementary reaction?
(1) Order is same as molecularity.
(2) Order is less than the molecularity.
(3) Order is greater than the molecularity.
(4) Molecularity can never be zero.

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1and 3 d) 1 and 4

Ans. D

1 Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d⁵. What is its atomic number?

(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 24

Ans B

2 Silver ornaments turn black by the presence of which gas in the atmosphere?

a) H₂S b) O₂ c) Cl₂ d) N₂

Ans A

3 Which of the following is not formed when H₂S reacts with acidic K₂Cr₂O₇solution?

a) CrSO₄ b) Cr₂ (SO₄)₃ c) K₂SO₄ d) S

Ans A

4. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d⁹whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d¹⁰. Which of the following is correct?

a. Cu(II) is less stable

b. Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable

c. Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts

d. Cu(II) is more stable

Ans A

5. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is +4 (MnF₄) but highest oxidation state in Oxides is +7 (Mn₂O₇) because ____________

a. fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.

b. fluorine does not possess d-orbitals.

c. fluorine stabilizes lower oxidation state.

d. in covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen forms double bond.

Ans D

6 Which of the following is not considered a transition metal?

a) Zn b) Ac c) Y d) La

Ans A

7 The main cause of Lanthanide Contraction is:

a. decreasing nuclear charge.

b. increasing nuclear charge

c. decreasing screening effect

d. negligible screening effect of f orbitals

Ans D

8 Which of the following halide ion has maximum ability to stabilize the higher O.N. of d-block metals?

a) I^– b) Cl^– c) Br^– d) F^–

Ans D

9 Which of the following statement about transition element is not correct?

(a) They show variable oxidation states.

(b) They exhibit diamagnetic and paramagnetic properties.

. (d) They exhibit catalytic properties.

Ans C

10 The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order

(a) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO

(b) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO

(d) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

(At. no. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)

Ans D

11 Four successive members of the first-row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?

(a) Vanadium (Z = 23) (b) Manganese (Z = 25)

Ans B

12. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colorless?

(a) Fe²⁺ (b) Mn²⁺ (c) Ti³⁺ (d) Sc³⁺

(At. no. Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)

And D

13 Which of the following ions have the same magnetic moment?

(a) Ca²⁺ and Ti²⁺ (b) Fe²⁺ and Cr²⁺

Ans B

14 Chloro compound of vanadium has only spin magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. This vanadium chloride has the formula (At. no. of V = 23)

(a) VCl₂ (b) VCl₄ (c) VCl₃ (d) VCl₅

Ans B

15 The number of d-electrons retained in Fe²⁺ (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion are

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

Ans D

16 Although Zirconium belongs to 4d transition series and Hafnium to 5d transition series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties because

(a) both belong to d-block.

(b) both have same number of electrons.

(d) both belong to the same group of the periodic table.

Ans C

17 Which of the following ion has smallest radii?

(a) Mn²⁺(b) Ni²⁺(c) Ti²⁺ (d) V²⁺

Ans B

18 Due to lanthanide contraction

(a) Fe, Co, Ni have equal size.

(b) Zr and Hf have equal size.

(d) all isoelectronic ions have equal size.

Ans B

19 Maximum magnetic moment is shown by

(a) d⁵ (b) d⁶ (c) d⁷ (d) d⁸

Ans A

20 The product of oxidation of I⁻with MnO₄ ⁻ in acidic medium is

(a) IO₃ ⁻(b) I₂ (c) IO⁻(d) IO₄^–

Ans B

21 The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to

(a) their magnetic behavior.

(b) their unfilled d-orbitals.

(d) their chemical reactivity.

Ans C

22 Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution?

(a) The solution turns blue.

(b) The solution is decolorized.

(d) Green Cr₂ (SO₄ ) ₃ is formed

Ans D

23 The correct order of E^o M /M ²⁺ values with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is

(a) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (b) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

Ans A

24 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinides is attributed to

(a) actinide contraction.

(b) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies.

(d) the radioactive nature of actinides.

Ans B

25 Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO₄ in acidic medium?

(a) Both HCl and KMnO₄ act as oxidizing agents.

(b) KMnO₄ oxidises HCl into Cl₂ which is also an oxidizing agent.

(d) KMnO₄acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.

Ans B

26 Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

(a) Ti³⁺ (b) Ni²⁺ (c) Cr³⁺ (d) Mn²⁺

Ans B

27 If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of zinc ions, a white precipitate appears and on adding excess NaOH, the precipitate dissolves. In this solution zinc exists in the

(a) cationic part. (b) anionic part.

Ans B

28 In Cr₂ O₇ ²⁻ every Cr is linked to

(a) two O atoms. (b) three O atoms.

Ans C

29 In the context of lanthanides, which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state.

(b) Because of similar properties, the separation of lanthanides is not easy

(d) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series

Ans C

30 The elements with maximum and minimum melting points in the second transition series respectively are

(a) Cr and Zn. (b) Cr and Cd.

Ans D

1 CrCl₃ has primary valence of

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 1

Ans A

2 The solution of K₄ [Fe(CN)₆ ] in water will

(a) give a test K⁺

(b) give a test Fe²⁺

(d) give a test of [Fe(CN)₆ ] ^4–

Ans A

3. Which of the following postulates of Werner’s theory is incorrect?

(a) Primary valencies are satisfied by negative ions.

(b) Secondary valencies are satisfied by neutral molecules or negative ions.

(d) The ions/ groups bound by the secondary linkages to the metal have characteristic spatial arrangements

Ans C

4 When AgNO₃ is added to a solution of Fe(NH₃)₅Cl₃ , the precipitate of AgCl shows two ionisable chloride ions. This means :

(a) Two chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency and one secondary valency

(b) One chlorine atom satisfies primary as well as secondary valency

(d) Three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency

Ans A

5 The compound having the lowest oxidation state of iron is:

(a) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

(b) Fe₂O₃

(d) Fe(CO)₅

Ans D

6. Chose the set of containing incorrect statement only.

(I) [Fe(CN₆)]^-3 has magnetic moment is equal to 1.73 BM while [FeF₆]^-3 has a magnetic moment is equal to 5.9 BM.

(II) [CoF₆]^-3 is paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons while [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^-3 has two unpaired electron

(III) [Co(H₂O)₆]⁺³ & [Co(C₂O₄)₆]^-3 are inner orbital complexes.

(IV) [Mn(H₂O)₆]⁺³,[Cr(H₂O)₆]⁺³ & [V(H₂O)₆]⁺³ are outer orbital complexes with four, three and two unpaired electrons respectively

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV

(d) II and IV

Ans B

7 Which Among the following ion(s) has the highest magnetic moment value?

(a) [Cr(H₂O)₆] ³⁺

(b) [Fe(H₂O)₆] ²⁺

(d) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Ans D

8. What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following: [Ni(CN)₆ ] ^4–, [Ni(NH₃ )₆ ] ²⁺, [Ni(H₂O)₆ ] ²⁺ ?

(a) [Ni(NH₃ )₆ ] ²⁺> [Ni(H₂O)₆ ] ²⁺> [Ni(CN)₆ ] ^4–

(b) [Ni(CN)₆ ] ^4–> [Ni(NH₃ )₆ ] ²⁺> [Ni(H₂O)₆ ] ²⁺

(d) [Ni(NH₃ )₆ ] ²⁺> [Ni(CN)₆ ] ^4–> [Ni(H₂O)₆ ] ²⁺

AnsC

9 Which of the following factors affects the magnitude of CFSE?

(a) Charge on metal ion

(b) Nature of ligand

(d) All of these

Ans D

10 Which of the following shall form a tetrahedral complex?

(a)d ⁴ (low spin)

(b)d ¹⁰ (high spin)

(d) none of these

AnsB

11 Which of the following is a complex of metal other than transition metal?

(a) Haemoglobin

(b) Chlorophyll

(d) Vitamin B12

Ans C

12 The donor atoms in ethylenediaminetetraacetato ion is

(a) two N and two O

(b) two N and four O

(d) three N and three O

Ans B

13 The geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds is exhibited by

(a) square planar and tetrahedral complexes

(b) square planar and octahedral complexes

(d) square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral comp.

Ans B

14 In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbital are

(a) raised in energy by 0.4 ∆o

(b) lowered in energy by 0.4 ∆o

(d) lowered in energy by 0.6 ∆o

Ans B

15 Among the compounds 1,2, and 3, [Ni(CO)₄]^-1, [Ni(CN)₄]^—2 and [NiCl₄] ^2-, the correct statement is

(a) 1, 3 are diamagnetic while 2 is paramagnetic

(b) 2, 3 are diamagnetic while 1 is paramagnetic

(d) 1 is diamagnetic while 2, 3 are paramagnetic

Ans C

16 Assertion: [Co (NH₃)₅Cl] SO₄ gives white precipitate with barium chloride in its aqueous solution.

Reason: AgNO₃ gives white ppt of AgCl with chloride ions.

Study the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) If A is false but R is true

Ans B

17 Assertion: According to crystal field theory during complex formation, the d – orbitals split and form two sets of orbitals t2g and eg.

Reason: Splitting of d – orbitals occurs only in case of strong field ligands.

Study the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) If A is false but R is true

Ans C

1 The reaction (CH3)3 CBr + H2O → (CH3)3 COH + HBr is a –

(A) Substitution reaction

(B) Debromination reaction

(D) Elimination reaction

Ans A

2 Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing S_N2 reactivity?

(A) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX

(B) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX

(D) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X

Ans C

3 The products of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide are –

(A) Ethane

(B) methyl nitrite

(D) Ethyl alcohol

Ans C

4 Which of the following reaction does not take place?

(A)

(B) + aq. KOH

(D) + NaOH

Ans B

5 CCl4 is used in fire extinguishers under the name –

(A) Pyrene

(B) Phosphine

(D) None of these

Ans A

6 The free radical substitution mechanism operates in the reaction between –

(A) Alkyl halide and silver nitrite.

(B) halogenation of alkyl halide in diffused light

(D) Alkyl iodide and potassium cyanide.

Ans B

7 A compound (X), C4H8Cl2, on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH gives a product (Y) which on heating with I2 and dilute NaOH gives a yellow precipitate of iodoform. The compound (X) is –

(A) CH3CH2CH2CHCl2

(B) CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl

(D) ClCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl

Ans C

8 The strengths of carbon-halogen bonds follow the order –

(A) R–F > R–Cl > R–Br > R–I

(B) R–I > R–Br > R–CI > R–F

(D) R–Cl > R–Br > R–I > R–F

Ans A

9 Consider the following reaction.

The product formed is –

(a) 2-chloropentane

(b) 2-butene

(d) 1-chloro-1-methyl propane

Ans C

10 In the preparation of ethyl chloride by the reaction

CH3CH2OH + HCl CH3CH2Cl + H2O

the major reason for using anhydrous ZnCl2 as a catalyst is that

(a) It absorbs water formed in the reaction and drives the equilibrium to the right

(b) It coordinates with the product CH3CH2Cl and drives the reaction to the right

(d) It coordinates with oxygen of ethyl alcohol and increases the leaving group ability of the –OH group

Ans D

11 In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with asterisk (*) is asymmetric?

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(b) (i), (ii), (iii)

(d) (i), (iii), (iv)

Ans B

12 The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is:

(a) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene

(b) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene

(d) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

Ans C

13 Reaction of C₆H₅CH₂Br with aqueous potassium hydroxide follows:

(a) S_N1 mechanism

(b) S_N2 mechanism

(d) Saytzeff rule

Ans A

14 Which of the following is halogen exchange reaction?

Ans

15 The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with :

(a) PCl₅

(b) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂

(d) None of these

Ans C

16 Match the items of Column I and Column II.

Column I Column II

(i) S_N1 reaction (A) vic-dibromides

(ii) Chemicals in fire extinguisher (B) gem-dihalides

(iii) Bromination of alkenes (C) Racemisation

(iv) Alkylidene halides (D) Saytzeff rule

(v) Elimination of HX from alkylhalide (E) Chlorobromocarbons

(a) i-C, ii-E, iii-A, iv-B, v-D

(b) i-C, ii-E, iii-D, iv-B, v-A

(d) i-C, ii-E, iii-D, iv-A, v-B

Ans A

17 Which of the following statements are correct about the mechanism of the reaction given below?

(a) A carbocation will be formed as an intermediate in the reaction.

(b) OH– will attach the substrate from one side and Cl– will leave it simultaneously from other side.

(d) Reaction proceeds through S_N2 mechanism.

Ans A

18 Which of the following statements are correct about the reaction intermediate in the reaction given below?

(i) Intermediate (c) is unstable because in this carbon is attached to 5 atoms.

(ii) Intermediate (c) is unstable because carbon atom is sp² hybridised.

(iii) Intermediate (c) is less stable than the reactant (b)

(iv) Intermediate (c) is stable because carbon atom is sp² hybridised.

(a) I and ii

(b) iii and iv

(d) ii and iv

Ans C

19 Read the following statements and choose the correct code

(i) S_N2 reaction proceed with complete stereochemical inversion.

(ii) S_N1 reaction proceed with recimisation.

(iii) A dextrorotatory compound rotate the plane polarised light to the left.

(iv) A laevorotatory compound rotate the plane polarised light to the right

(a) TFTT

(b) TTFF

(d) TFTF

Ans B

20 Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

(i) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides decreases in the order. RI > RBr > RCl > RF

(ii) With the increases in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal’s forces increases.

(a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect

(d) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect

Ans A

1 Among isomeric alcohols, which is the most soluble in water?
a) n-Butyl alcohol
b) Isobutyl alcohol
c) sec-Butyl alcohol
d) tert-Butyl alcohol

Ans D

2 Four compounds P, Q, R and S having similar molecular masses were tested for their boiling

points. It was found that compound R has the highest boiling point of all four.

What is the compound R most likely to be?

a) Hydrocarbon
b) Halo alkane
c) Alcohol
d) Ether

Ans C

3 What is the correct order of boiling points of alcohols having the same number of carbon Atoms?

a) 1°>2°>3°
b) 3°>2°>1°
c) 3°>1°>2°
d) 2°>1°>3°

Ans A

4 Iso-propyl benzene on hydrolysis with dilute H₂SO₄ gives _________
a) phenol and alcohol
b) only phenol
c) phenol and acetone
d) alcohol and acetone

Ans C

5 Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives

(a) diphenyl ether
(b) p-hydroxyazobenzene
(c) chlorobenzene
(d) Benzene

Ans B

6 Phenol if treated with bromine in CCl₄/CS₂ at low temperature to give
(a) m-bromophenol
(b) o-and p-bromophenol
(c) p-bromophenol
(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol

Ans B

7 Dehydration of alcohol is an example of
(a) addition reaction
(b) elimination reaction
(c) substitution reaction
(d) redox reaction

Ans B

8 The compound obtained by the reaction of propene with diborane followed by hydrolysis with alkaline H₂O₂ is
(a) ethanol
(b) propan-1-ol
(c) ethanol
(d) triethyl bromide

Ans B

9 Which of the following is formed when phenol is exposed to air?
(a) o-Benzoquinone
(b) p-Benzoquinone
(c) Phenoquinone
(d) o-and p-Benzoquinone

Ans C

10 Which of the following is formed when glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 503K?
(a) Glyceric acid
(b) Acryl aldehyde
(c) Allyl alcohol
(d) Methanoic acid

Ans B

11 The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent is
(a) isobutyl alcohol
(b) n-butanol
(c) tert-butyl alcohol
(d) sec-butyl alcohol

Ans C

12 Phenol is less acidic than
(a) acetic acid
(b) p-methoxyphenol
(c) p-nitrophenol
(d) Ethanol

Ans B

13 Phenol on reduction with H₂in the presence of Ni catalyst gives
(a) benzene
(b) toluene
(c) cyclohexane
(d) Cyclohexanol

Ans D

14 Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.

a)2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane

b)2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane

c) 5-Methylhexan-2-ol

d) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol

Ans C

15 Which of the following species can act as the strongest base?

Ans B

16 Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?

C₆H₅OH
C₆H₅CH₂OH
(CH₃ )₃COH
C₂H₅OH

Ans A

17 Which of the following is prefer to convert RCHO into RCH2OH?

H₂ /Pd
LiAlH4
NaBH4
Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis

Ans B

18 Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reactions with

Br₂ /water
Na
Neutral FeCl₃
All the above

Ans C

19 Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes?

CrO₃ in anhydrous medium.
KMnO₄ in acidic medium.
Pyridinium chlorochromate.
Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K.

Ans C

20 Which of the following is used to convert RCOOH into RCH2OH?

H₂ /Pd
LiAlH₄
NaBH₄
Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis

Ans B

21. Which of the following is most acidic?

(a) Benzyl alcohol

(b) Cyclohexanol

(d) m-Chlorophenol

Ans C

22 Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCl

a < b < c
b < a < c
b < c < a
c < b < a

Ans B

23 Mark the correct order of descending acidic strength of the following compounds.

e > d > b > a > c
b > d > a > c > e
d > e > c > b > a
e > d > c > b > a

Ans B

24 How many alcohols with molecular formula C₄H₁₀O are chiral in nature?

Ans A

25 Appropriate order of reactivity for alcohols in the following reaction?

1° > 2° > 3°
1° < 2° > 3°
3° > 2° > 1°
3° > 1° > 2°

Ans C

26 The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves

Addition reaction
Substitution reaction
Dehydrohalogenation reaction
Rearrangement reaction

Ans B

27 Which of the following reactions will yield phenol?

Ans A

28 Name the below mentioned compound

a) Ethylene glycol

b) Ethyledene glycol

c) Ethane-1,2-diol

d) a & c

Ans D

29 Structural formula of catechol is

Ans C

30 Which is the most acidic alcohol

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans B

1 The carbon atom of the carbonyl group is:

a ) Sp

sp²
Sp³
Sp³d

Ans B

2 Dry heating of calcium acetate will give: ‘

Acetic acid
Acetone
Ethanol
Acetaldehyde

Ans B

3 Tollens’ reagent is:

alkaline mercuric chloride
alkaline potassium permanganate
ammonium citrate
ammonium silver nitrate

Ans D

4 Which statement is incorrect in the case of acetaldehyde and acetone?

Both react with HCN
Both give iodoform test
Both can be reduced into alcohols
Both react with NaOH to form polymer

Ans D

5 When formaldehyde is treated with ammonia, the compound formed is

Methylamine
hexamethylene tetramine
formaldehyde ammonia
formalin

AnsA

6 A plastic bakelite is a compound of phenol with:

acetal
Ethnal
Methnal

d) Acetone

AnsC

7 Formaldehyde can be distinguished from acetaldehyde by the use of:

Schiff’s reagent
Tollens reagent
Fehlings solution

Iodoform test

AnsD

8 Which of the following would undergo aldol condensation

Propionaldehyde
Pivaldehyde
Chloral

Formaaldehyde

AnsA

Clemmensen’s reduction will convert cyclohexanon into

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

AnsA

10 A natural compound (X), C₄H₈0₂, reduces Fehling’s solution, liberates hydrogen when

Treated with sodium metal and gives a positive iodoform test. The structure of (X) is

CH₃CHOHCH₂CHO
HOCH₂CH₂CHO
CH₃COCH₂CH₂0H
CH₃COCH₂CHO

AnsC

11 A carbonyl compound with molecular weight 86, does not reduce Fehling’s solution but

forms crystalline bisulphite derivatives and gives iodoform test. The possible compound

can be:

pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one
pentan-3-one and 3-methyl butan-2-one
pentanone and pentanal
pentan-2-one and methyl butan-2-one

AnsD

12 A compound does not react with 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine, compound is

Acetaldehyde
Acetone
Methanol
Ethyl methyl ketone

AnsC

13 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on

hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is

diethyl ketone
formaldehyde
acetone
acetaldehyde

AnsD

14 Ketones can be prepared by

heating calcium propionate with calcium formate
action of dialkyl cadmium on acid chloride
hydrolysis of n-propylidene chloride with alkali
dry distillation of fused calcium acetate

AnsD

15 Acetone molecules condensation with conc. Sulphuric acid can give

mesityloxide
mesitylene
croton aldehyde
phorone

AnsB

16 A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating. with aqueous NaOH gives

benzyl alcohol and sodium fonnate
benzyl alcohol and methyl aloohol
sodium benzoate and sodium formate
sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol

AnsC

17 The appropriate reagent for the following transformation

Zn(Hg), HCI
NaBH₄
NH₂NH₂,OH-
H₂/Ni

AnsA

18 The most reactive compound towards formation of cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN

followed by acidification is

p-hydroxy benzaldehyde
benzaldehyde
p-nitrobenzaldehyde
phenyl acetaldehyde

AnsC

19 Ozonolysis of C₇H₁₄ gave 2-methyl pentan-3-0ne. The alkene is

2-ethyl-3-methyl but-I-ene
2-methyl-3-ethyl but-3-ene
2,5-dimethyl-3,4-diethyl hex-3-ene
2-methyl-3-ethyl but-I-ene

AnsA

20 Out of butane, butan-l-ol, butanal and butanone, the decreasing order of their boiling

point is

butane> butanol> butanal > butanone
butanol> butane> butanal > butanone
butanone > butanal > butanol> butane
butanol> butanal > butanone > butane

AnsD

21 Formic acid is not a representative member of the carboxylic acids because:

it is a gas
it is the first member of the series
it does not contain an alkyl group
it contains an aldehydic group while the other acids do. not have the aldehydic group

AnsD

22 Which of the following will not undergo HVZ reaction?

2,2-Dimethyl propanoic acid
Propanoic acid
Acetic acid
2-Methyl propanoic acid

AnsA

23 The higher boiling points of carboxylic acids are due to

their acidic nature
intermolecular hydrogen bonding
their dimerisation
both (b) and (c)

AnsD

Reaction is known as:

Schotten-Baumann reaction
Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
Finkelstein reaction
none of the above

AnsB

25 Carboxylic acids readily dissolve in aqueous sodium bicarbonate, liberating carbon dioxide.

Which one of the following is correct?

The conjugate base of the carboxylic acid is more stable than the free carboxylic acid
Free carboxylic acid and its conjugate base are of comparable stability
The free carboxylic acid is more stable than its conjugate base
The conjugated acid of the carboxylic acid is more stable than the free carboxylic

acid

AnsA

26 The correct order of acidic strength of carboxylic acid is:

acetic acid < benzoic acid < formic acid
formic acid < benzoic acid < acetic acid
formic acid < acetic acid < benzoic acid
acetic acid < formic acid < benzoic acid

AnsD

27 HCOOH reacts with concentrated H₂S0₄ to produce

CO
N₂0₄
SO₃
CO₂

AnsB

28 When acetic acid is treated with P₂0₅ the product is

AnsB

29 In the above reaction, product ‘X’ is

AnsA

30 The product (C) in the following reactions is

AnsC

1 Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘False’?
(a) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines.
(b) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols
(c) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
(d) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia.

Ans C

2 The compound obtained by heating a mixture of a primary amine and chloroform with ethanolic potassium hydroxide (KOH) is:
(a) an alkyl cyanide

(b) a nitro compound

(d) an amide

Ans C

3 Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Methylamine (b) Trimethylamine (c) Aniline (d) Dimethylamine

Ans D

4 A compound on hydrolysis gives 1°-amine. The compound is:
(a) anilide (b) amide (c) cyanide (d) none of these

Ans B

5 An isocyanide is prepared:
(a) Friedel-Crafts reaction (b) Perkin reaction (c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Wurtz reaction

Ans C

6 An organic compound reacts with benzene sulphonyl chloride and the product dissolves in aqueous NaOH. The compound is –
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine (d) all of these

Ans A

7 Methylamine can be prepared by :
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
(c) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(d) Kolbe reaction

Ans B

8 The reaction between RNH₂ + CHCl₃ + KOH (alc.) is known as:
(a) Coupling reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(d) Schmidt reaction

Ans B

9 Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in weakly alkaline medium to give:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans A

10 Which one of the following is formed by Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
(a) Tertiary amine
(b) Primary aromatic amine
(c) Primary aliphatic amine
(d) Secondary amine

Ans C

11 When nitrobenzene is reduced in neutral medium, the product is:
(a) C₆H₅NHOH(Phenyl hydroxylamine)
(b) C₆H₅NH₂(Aniline)
(c) p-aminophenol
(d) azobenzene

Ans A

12 Out of the following, the strongest base in aqueous solution is:
(a) dimethylamine
(b) aniline
(c) methylamine
(d) trimethylamine

Ans A

13 The compound obtained by the reaction of nitrous acid on aliphatic primary amine is:
(a) alkyl nitrite (b) alcohol (c) nitroalkane (d) secondary amine

Ans B

14 Which of the following compounds will not undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) Phenol (b) Aniline (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Anisole

Ans C

15 Which one is the correct order of basic strength?

(a) C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < NH₃ < (C₂H₅)₃N

(b) (C₂H₅)₃N < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < NH₃

(d) NH₃ < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH

Ans C

16 Which one of the following is the correct formula of aniline?

(a) CH₃NH₂

(b) C₆H₅NH₂

(d) (C₆H₅)₂NH

Ans B

17 Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pK_b value?

(a) (CH₃)₂NH (b) CH₃NH₂ (c) (CH₃)₃N (d) C₆H₅NH₂

Ans A

18 What is the common name of most basic aromatic amine’s?

(a) Benzenamine

(b) Benzylamine

(d) Aminobenzene

Ans C

19 What is the correct name for a molecule that has two amino groups in opposing (Ortho) locations around a benzene ring?

(a) Benzenediamine

(b) Benzene-1,2-diamine

(d) 4-Aminobenzenamine

Ans B

20 What is the name of the reaction, when benzamide is converted to aniline?

(a) Friedel-Craft’s reaction

(b) Hofmann reaction

(d) Hinsberg reaction

Ans C

21 Which of the following is the IUPAC name of the chemical in which an isopropyl group replaces one hydrogen of ammonia?

(a) Ethanamine

(b) Aminoethane

(d) Propan-2-amine

Ans D

22 The aromatic primary amine with the formula C₈H₁₁N has an incorrect name.

(a) Phenylaminomethane

(b) Benzylamine

(d) Phenylmethanamine

Ans C

23 Which test can tell the difference between p-bromoaniline and anilinium hydrochloride?

(a) Sandmeyer reaction

(b) Carbylamine test

(d) NaHCO₃

Ans D

24 By reacting with which of the following, primary amines can be separated from secondary and tertiary amines?

(a) Chloroform alone

(b) Methyl iodide

(d) Zinc dust

Ans C

25 Which of these substances has a lower melting point than primary amine?

(a) Alcohol

(b) Ether

(d) Ammonia

Ans D

26 Which of the following statements concerning ethylamine is correct?

(a) Ethylamine is stronger base than NH₃

(b) Methylamine is less basic than NH₃

(d) Methylamine forms salts with alkali

Ans A

27 Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
(a) Ethylamine
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₃N
(d) Propan-2-amine

Ans C

28
above sequence, Z is
(a) Cyanoethane
(b) Ethanamide
(c) Methanamine
(d) Ethanamine

Ans D

29 Which of the following amines can exhibit enantiomerism?

Ans B

30 Which of the following pair of species will yield carbylamine?
(a) CH₃CH₂Br and KCN
(b) CH₃CH₂Br and NH₃ (excess)
(c) CH₃CH₂Br and AgCN
(d) CH₃CH₂NH₂ and HCHO

Ans C

1. The number of tripeptides formed by 3 different amino acids.
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six.

Answer: (d) Six.

2. The functional group which is found in amino acids is
(a) COOH
(b) -NH₂
(c) -CH₃
(d) both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b).

3. The vitamins absorbed from intestine along with fats are
(a) A and D
(b) A, B
(c) A, C
(d) D, B

Answer: (a) A and D

4. Which amino acids is a chiral?
(a) Alanine
(b) Valine
(c) Proline
d) none of these

Answer: (d) none of these.

5. Which of the following biomolecules is insoluble in water?
(a) a-Keratin
(b) hemoglobin
(c) ribonuclease
(d) adenine.

Answer: (a) a-Keratin

6. The protein responsible for blood clotting is
(a) Albumins
(b) Globulins
(c) Fibroin
(d) Fibrinogen.

Answer: (d) Fibrinogen

7. Which one of them is not a protein?
(a) Wool
(b) Nail
(c) Hair
(d) DNA

Answer: (d) DNA

8. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by:
(a) Peptide bond
(b) Dipeptide bond
(c) Hydrogen bonds

(d) Vander Waal’s forces

Answer: (c) Hydrogen bonds

9. Which of the following has a branched chain structure
(a) Amylopectin
(b) Amylose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Nylon.

Answer: (a) Amylopectin

10. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form
(a) Monoacetate
(b) Tetraacetate
(c) Penta-acetate
(d) Hexa-acetate.

Answer: (c) Penta-acetate

11. Which of the following has not a glycosidic linkage?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Amylose
(c) Galactose
(d) Maltose.

Answer: (c) Galactose

12. Amino acids are the building blocks of
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Vitamins
(c) Fats
(d) Proteins.

Answer: (d) Proteins.

13. Which carbohydrates is an essential constituent of plant cells?
(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Vitamins.

Answer: (b) Cellulose

14. Enzymes in the living system
(a) provide energy
(b) provide immunity
(c) transport oxygen
(d) catalyze biological reaction.

Answer: (d) catalyze biological reaction

15. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar:
(a) Sucrose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Maltose.

Answer: (c) Fructose

16. Which of the following statements is true for protein synthesis
(a) amino acids are directly recognized by m-RNA.
(b) the third base of codon is less specific.
(c) only one codon codes for an amino acid.
(d) every t-RNA has more than one amino acid attachment.

Answer: (b) the third base of codon is less specific.

17. Which of the following contains a transition metal?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Hemoglobin
(c) RNA
(d) DNA.

Answer: (b) Hemoglobin.

18. The number of chiral carbons in ß-D (+) glucose is:
(a) five
(b) six
(c) three
(d) four

Answer: (a) five

19. Which one is correct?
(a) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose
(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose.
(c) Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acids
(d) In cyclic structure of furanose, these are 4 carbons and one oxygen atom.

Answer: (a) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose

20. Enzymes belong to which class of compounds.
(a) Polysaccharides
(b) Polypeptides
(c) Poly nitro heterocyclic compounds
(d) Hydrocarbon.

Answer: (b) Polypeptides

21.. The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is
(a) Thymine
(b) Cytosine
(c) Guanine
(d) Adenine

Answer: (c) Guanine

22. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at
(a) C₅‘and C₂‘of the sugar molecule respectively.
(b) C₂‘ and C₅‘ respectively of the sugar molecule.
(c) C₁‘ and C₅‘ respectively of the sugar molecule.
(d) C₅‘ and C₁‘ respectively of sugar molecule.

Answer: (c) C₁‘ and C₅‘ respectively of the sugar molecule.

23. The correct statement for protein hemoglobin.
(a) functions as a catalyst for biological reactions.
(b) maintains blood sugar level.
(c) acts as oxygen carrier in blood.
(d) forms antibodies and resists to disease.

Answer: (c) acts as oxygen carrier in blood.

24. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by
(a) dipeptide bonds
(b) hydrogen bonds
(c) ether bonds
(d) peptide bonds.

Answer: (b) hydrogen bonds

25. What is tested in the urine of a sugar patient Among the following is:
(a) Glucose
(b)Fructose
(c)Sucrose
(d) All of these?

Answer: (c) 2-Hydroxymethylresfne

26. Which base is present in RNA, but not in DNA.
(a) Uracil
(b) Cytosine
(c) Guanine
(d) Thymine

Answer: (a) Uracil

27. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
(a) L-glucose
(b) D-fructose
(c) D-ribose
(d) D-glucose.

Answer: (d) D-glucose.

28. The enzyme which hydrolyses triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called:
(a) Maltose
(b) Lipase
(c) Zymase
(d) Pepsin.

Answer: (b) Lipase

29. The cell membranes are mainly composed of:
(a) Phospholipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates.

Answer: (a) Phospholipids

30. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?
(a) Thio ether
(b) Thiol
(c) Thio ester
(d) Thiol acetone.

Answer: (b) Thiol

Chemistry MCQ for Exam

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