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Q.01 The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are :
(1) axillary buds
(2) root buds
(3) flower buds
(4) shoot buds
Answer
axillary buds
Q.02 Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a :
(1) Hot spring
(2) Sulphur rock
(3) Cattle yard
(4) Polluted stream
3
Q.03 Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?
(1) Angiosperms
(2) Fungi
(3) Insects
(4) Birds
3
Q.04 Archegoniphore is present in :
(1) Funaria
(2) Marchantia
(3) Chara
(4) Adiantum
2
Q.05 Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
(1) smaller and to have smaller sex organs
(2) smaller but to have larger sex organs
(3) larger but to have smaller sex organs
(4) larger and to have larger sex organs
1
Q.06 The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in :
(1) Pinus
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Adiantum
(4) Marchantia
1
Q.07 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is :
(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Plastid
3
Q.08 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :
(1) Ribosomes
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chromoplast
1
Q.09 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is :
(1) Cell wall
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Nucleus
(4) Ribosomes
2
Q.10 Mutations can be induced with :
(1) Gamma radiation
(2) Infra Red radiations
(3) IAA
(4) Ethylene
1
Q.11 A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :
(1) Genome
(2) Herbarium
(3) Germplasm
(4) Gene library
3
Q.12 Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell ?
(1) 23 s RNA
(2) 5 s RNA
(3) sn RNA
(4) hn RNA
1
Q.13 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
(2) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(3) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm
(4) Placentation in primose is basal
1
Q.14 The correct floral formula of chilli is :
(1) 
(2)
(3) 
(4) 
3
Q.15 Nitrifying bacteria :
(1) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(2) oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(3) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen to compounds
(4) convert proteins into ammonia
2
Q.16 The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is :
(1) expression of nif gene
(2) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(3) oxygen removal
(4) nodule differentiation
3
Q.17 Which one of the following elements is plants is not remobillised ?
(1) Sulphur
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Calcium
(4) Potassium
3
Q.18 A drupe develops in :
(1) Tomato
(2) Mango
(3) Wheat
(4) Pea
2
Q.19 Ground tissue includes :
(1) All tissues internal to endodermis
(2) All tissues external to endodermis
(3) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
(4) Epidermis and cortex
3
Q.20 In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having :
(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
1
Q.21 The ovary is half inferior in flower of :
(1) Guava
(2) Peach
(3) Cucumber
(4) Cotton
2
Q.22 The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called :
(1) Phellem
(2) Phelloderm
(3) Phellogen
(4) Periderm
4
Q.23 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Cassia – lmbricate aestivation
(2) Root pressure-Guttation
(3) Puccinia – Smut
(4) Root –Exarch protoxylem
3
Q.24 Flowers are Zygomorphic in :
(1) Datura
(2) Mustard
(3) Gulmohur
(4) tomato
3
Q.25 CAM helps the plants in :
(1) Reproduction
(2) Conserving water
(3) Secondary growth
(4) Disease resistance
2
Q.26 Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
(1) More than 80%
(2) About 70%
(3) About 60%
(4) Less than 50%
4
Q.27 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in
(1) Pisum
(2) Alnus
(3) Cycas
(4) Cicer
3
Q.28 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of :
(1) Brassica
(2) Citrus
(3) Gossypium
(4) Triticum
2
Q.29 Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(1) Zygote
(2) Suspensor
(3) Egg
(4) Synergid
4
Q.30 What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells ?
(1) 2
(2) 42
(3) 63
(4) 84
3
Q.31 Wind pollination is common in :
(1) Orchids
(2) Legumes
(3) Lilies
(4) Grasses
4
Q.32 In which one of the following pollination is autogamous ?
(1) Cleistogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Chasmogamy
Q.33 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called :
(1) Standing state
(2) Standing crop
(3) Detritus
(4) Humus
2
Q.34 Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?
(1) It took place in the night of December 2/3, 984
(2) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
(3) Thousands of human beings died
(4) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
4
Q.35 Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :
(1) Biological process
(2) Physical process
(3) Mechanical process
(4) Chemical process
1
Q.36 Eutrophication is often seen in :
(1) Mountains
(2) Deserts
(3) Fresh water lakes
(4) Ocean
3
Q.37 Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in :
(1) Alpine forests
(2) Temperate forests
(3) Mangroves
(4) Tropical rainforests
4
Q.38 Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct ?
(1) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(2) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(3) UNEP = United Nations Environmental policy
(4) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
1
Q.39 Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(1) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
(2) It begins on a bare rock.
(3) It occurs on deforested site
(4) It follows primary succession
1
Q.40 Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India ?
(1) Mango
(2) Groundnut
(3) Rice
(4) Maize
3
Q.41 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?
(1) Mycorrhiza
(2) Agrobacterium
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Nostoc
2
Q.42 Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body ?
(1) Skin
(2) Epithelium of Urogenital tract
(3) Tears
(4) Monocytes
3
Q.43 Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Glomus
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Frankia
2
Q.44 ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :
(1) Wheat
(2) Chilli
(3) Maize
(4) Sugarcane
1
Q.45 Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
(1) Marsh gas
(2) Laughing gas
(3) Propane
(4) Mustard gas
1
Q.46 Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in :
(1) Gel electrophoresis
(2) Spectrophotometry
(3) Tissue Culture
(4) PCR
1
Q.47 Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :
(1) Pig
(2) Fish
(3) Mice
(4) Cow
3
Q.48 Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to :
(1) degrade sewage
(2) produce methane
(3) obtain antibiotics
(4) purify enzymes
3
Q.49 The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to :
(1) Insects
(2) Nematodes
(3) Fungi
(4) Viruses
2
Q.50 “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of:
(1) Bajra
(2) Maize
(3) Rice
(4) Wheat
3
Q.51 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(1) Amoeba proteus
(2) Paramccium caudatum
(3) Escheria coli
(4) Euglena viridis
3
Q.52 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ?
(1) Housefly – Musca, an order
(2) Tiger –tigris, the species
(3) Cuttlefish- Mollusca, a class
(4) Humans – Primata, the family
2
Q.53 In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched ?
|
Genus name |
Two characters |
Class / Phylum | ||
|
(1) |
Aurelia |
(a) |
Cnidoblasts |
Coelenterata |
|
(b) |
Organ level of organization | |||
|
(2) |
Ascaris |
(a) |
Body segmented |
Annelida |
|
(b) |
Males and females distinct | |||
|
(3) |
Salamandra |
(a) |
A tympanum represents ear |
Amphibia |
|
(b) |
Fertilization is external | |||
|
(4) |
Pteropus |
(a) |
skin possesses hair |
Mammalia |
|
(b) |
Oviparous | |||
3
Q.54 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception ?
(1) Mammalia : give birth to young ones.
(2) Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
(3) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
(4) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
4
Q.55 What will you look for to identify the sex of the following ?
(1) Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins
(2) Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior end
(3) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
(4) Female cockroach – Anal cerci
1
Q.56 The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration)
What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?
3
Q.57 The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :
(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra
(2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(4) Bile duct and oesophagus
3
Q.58 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(1) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
1
Q.59 Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function ?
(1) A : Lecithin-a component of cell membrane
(2) B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
(3) A : Triglyceride-major source of energy
(4) B : Uracil-a component of DNA
1
Q.60 What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
(1) Increasing brain capacity
(2) Upright posture
(3) Shortening of jaws
(4) Binocular vision
1
Q.61 Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given examples ?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila
(2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds
(3) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(4) XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
3
Q.62 A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend
(1) Type A
(2) Type B
(3) Type AB
(4) Type O
4
Q.63 What are those structures that appear as ‘beads on-string’ in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope ?
(1) Base pairs
(2) Genes
(3) Nucleotides
(4) Nucleosomes
4
Q.64 Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function.
|
Source gland |
Hormone |
Function | |
|
(1) |
Thyroid |
Thyroxine |
Regulates blood calcium level |
|
(2) |
Anterior pituitary |
Oxytocin |
Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth |
|
(3) |
Posterior pituitary |
Vasopressin |
Stimulates resorption of water in the distal tubules in the nephron |
|
(4) |
Corpus luteum |
Estrogen |
Supports pregnancy |
3
Q.65 Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach ?
(1) The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
1
Q.66 A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptakes by the body tissues. This O2 :
(1) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues
(2) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(3) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(4) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
2
Q.67 Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans
(1) Trypsin
(2) Pepsin
(3) Rennin
(4) Lipase
3
Q.68 Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid ?
(1) Loops of Henle
(2) Peritubular capillaries
(3) Convoluted tubules
(4) Collecting ducts
3
Q.69 One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that :
(1) It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(2) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
(3) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
(4) The S-shaped state embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies
3
Q.70 Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of:
(1) Tongue
(2) Epiglottis
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Neck
2
Q.71 Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :
(1) carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ]
(2) supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(3) carry blood away from the heart to different organs
(4) break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
3
Q.72 ‘Bundle of Hiss’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans ?
(1) Pancreas
(2) Brain
(3) Heart
(4) Kidney
3
Q.73 The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photo receptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of :
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D
1
Q.74 Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) an albumin
(3) serum amylase
(4) a globulin
1
Q.75 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is :
(1) Comparatively more permeable of K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
(2) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(3) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(4) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
1
Q.76 Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron ?
(1) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
(2) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
(3) Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(4) Distal convoluted tubule : re-absorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
2
Q.77 Given below is an incomplete table certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.
|
Glands |
Secretion |
Effect on Body |
|
A |
Oestrogen |
Maintenance of secondary sexual characters |
|
Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans |
B |
Raises blood sugar level |
|
Anterior pituitary |
C |
Over section leads to gigantism |
|
Options : |
A |
B |
C |
|
(1) |
Placenta Glucagon |
Calcitionin | |
|
(2) |
Ovary |
Glucagon |
Growth hormone |
|
(3) |
Placenta Insulin |
Vasopressin | |
|
(4) |
Ovary |
Insulin |
Calcitonin |
2
Q.78 Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in :
(1) Insects and Amphibians
(2) Reptiles and Birds
(3) Birds and Annelids
(4) Amphibians and Reptiles
2
Q.79 The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function,
Options :
(1) B : red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly
(2) C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues
(3) A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases
(4) D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
3
Q.80 Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure :
(1) 90/0 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(2) 30/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment
(3) 00/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure
(4) 05/50 mm Hg makes one very active
1
Q.81 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation ?
(1) During summer when body loses of lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
(4) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
2
Q.82 The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I -VI have been correctly identified ?
(1) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
(2) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriage
(3) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
(4) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix
3
Q.83 The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for :
(1) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(2) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(3) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(4) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
2
Q.84 Which one of the following is the most wide accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ?
(1) IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices)
(2) Cervical caps
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Diaphragms
1
Q.85 If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from :
(1) Vagina to uterus
(2) Testes to epididymis
(3) Epididymis to vas deferens
(4) Ovary to uterus
2
Q.86 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?
(1) Six weeks
(2) Eight weeks
(3) Twelve weeks
(4) Eighteen weeks
3
Q.87 Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?
(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest
(2) The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
(3) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
(4) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
4
Q.88 What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?
(1) Expanding population
(2) Vanishing population
(3) Stable population
(4) Declining population
4
Q.89 Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
(1) It is upright in shape
(2) Its base is broad
(3) It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
(4) It is inverted in shape
4
Q.90 Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular special of :
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Sanccharomyces
(3) Clostridium
(4) Trichoderma
2
Q.91 Consider the following four conditions (a – d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions :
(a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) bask in sun when temperature is low
(d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
Options :
(1) (a), (b)
(2) (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c)
(4) (b), (d)
3
Q.92 Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of “Green house effect”?
(1) CO2 and N2O
(2) CO2 and O3
(3) CO2 and CO
(4) CFCS and SO2
1
Q.93 Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ?
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
(4) spleen of infected humans
2
Q.94 When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called :
(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Heterosis
(3) Transformation
(4) Sphcing
2
Q.95 A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
(1) WIDAL
(2) ELISA
(3) MRI
(4) Ultra Sound
2
Q.96 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shown symptoms of AIDS?
(1) Within 5 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(2) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(3) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(4) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes damages larger number of these
4
Q.97 Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ?
5′ ………….. GAATTC ……………. 3′
3′ ………….. CTTAAG …………….. 5′
(1) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(2) Replication completed
(3) Deletion mutation
(4) Start codon at the 5′ end
1
Q.98 The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is :
(1) Molasses
(2) Corn meal
(3) Soyabean
(4) Ground gram
1
Q.99 An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is :
(1) Nostoc (
2) Azotobacter
(3) Azospirillum
(4) Rhizobium
4
Q.100 There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRl. What does “co” part in it stand for ?
(1) coli
(2) colon
(3) coelom
(4) coenzyme
1